Added compactness, Urysohn's lemma, and the Tietze extension theorem.

This commit is contained in:
Bokuan Li
2026-01-08 23:01:52 -05:00
parent 39e967c198
commit c7d057139e
7 changed files with 316 additions and 8 deletions

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@@ -33,7 +33,7 @@
\item The topology induced by $\fV$ is finer than the $\mathfrak{S}$-topology on $T^X$.
\item If $\mathfrak{S}$ is upward-directed with respect to inclusion, then $\mathfrak{E}(\mathfrak{S}, \fU)$ is forms a fundamental system of entourages for $\fV$.
\end{enumerate}
and the topology induced by $\fV$ is the \textbf{topology of uniform convergence on the sets $\mathfrak{S}$}/\textbf{$\mathfrak{S}$-uniform topology} on $X^T$.
The uniformity $\fV$ is the \textbf{$\mathfrak{S}$-uniformity}, and the topology induced by $\fV$ is the \textbf{topology of uniform convergence on the sets $\mathfrak{S}$}/\textbf{$\mathfrak{S}$-uniform topology} on $X^T$.
\end{definition}
\begin{proof}
(1): Since $\Delta \subset E(S, U)$ for all $S \in \mathfrak{S}$ and $U \in \fU$, $\mathfrak{E}(\mathfrak{S}, \fU)$ generates a uniformity on $X^T$.
@@ -71,3 +71,13 @@
\]
which is open in the product topology. The converse is given by \ref{definition:set-uniform}.
\end{proof}
\begin{proposition}
\label{proposition:set-uniform-complete}
Let $T$ be a set, $\mathfrak{S} \subset 2^T$ such that $\bigcup_{S \in \mathfrak{S}}S = T$, and $(X, \fU)$ be a complete uniform space, then $X^T$ equipped with the $\mathfrak{S}$-uniformity is complete.
\end{proposition}
\begin{proof}
Let $\fF \subset 2^{X^T}$ be a Cauchy filter. Let $x \in T$. If there exists $S \in \mathfrak{S}$ with $x \in S$, then $\pi_x(\fF) \subset 2^X$ is a Cauchy filter. By completeness of $X$, there exists $f: T \to X$ such that $\pi_x(\fF) \to f(x)$ for all $x \in \bigcup_{S \in \mathfrak{S}}S$.
Let $S \in \mathfrak{S}$ be non-empty and $V_0, V$ be symmetric entourages of $X$ with $V_0 \circ V_0 \subset V$. Since $\fF$ is Cauchy, there exists an $E(S, V_0)$-small set $F \in \fF$. Let $x \in S$, then $\pi_x(\fF) \to f(x)$ implies that $F_x = \pi_x^{-1}(V_0(f(x))) \in \fF$. Since $F \cap F_x \ne \emptyset$, $(f(x), g(x)) \in V_0 \circ V_0 \subset V$ for all $g \in F$. As this holds for all $x \in S$, $E \subset E(S, V)(f) \in \fF$. Thus $\fF \to f$.
\end{proof}